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Peoplecert ITIL 4 Practitioner: Deployment Management Sample Questions (Q17-Q22):

NEW QUESTION # 17
[Understand the Key Concepts of Deployment Management]
Which of the following BEST describes the scope of deployment management practice?

A. The practice includes removing configuration documentation but not physical servers from the live environment
B. The practice includes updating service documentation and transferring it to the live environment
C. The practice includes deploying network hubs but not additional software licenses to the live environment
D. The practice includes deploying network hubs to and removing applications from staging environments

Answer: D

Explanation:
ITIL 4's deployment management practice encompasses moving hardware, software, and associated components into or out of environments (e.g., staging, testing, or production) to support service delivery. Option A, which includes deploying network hubs (hardware) and removing applications from staging environments (software), accurately reflects this broad scope across the service lifecycle.
Option A (The practice includes deploying network hubs to and removing applications from staging environments): Correct, as it covers both hardware and software movements across environments, aligning with ITIL 4's definition of deployment management.
Option B (The practice includes updating service documentation and transferring it to the live environment): Incorrect, as updating and transferring documentation is part of knowledge management, not deployment management.
Option C (The practice includes removing configuration documentation but not physical servers from the live environment): Incorrect, as deployment management includes moving physical servers, and configuration documentation is managed elsewhere.
Option D (The practice includes deploying network hubs but not additional software licenses to the live environment): Incorrect, as software licenses may be part of deployment if required, and the option arbitrarily limits the scope.

NEW QUESTION # 18
[Apply Deployment Management Processes]
What key output of the 'deployment model development and improvement' process can be used to trigger implementation of a newly updated deployment model?

A. Change request
B. Updated knowledge management articles
C. Lessons learned
D. Deployment review reports

Answer: A

Explanation:
In ITIL 4, the deployment model development and improvement process involves creating or refining models to enhance deployment effectiveness. Implementing a newly updated deployment model typically requires formal authorization and coordination, which is achieved through a change request (Option B). A change request initiates the process to assess, approve, and execute the model update in a controlled manner, ensuring alignment with organizational governance and other practices like change enablement.
Option A (Lessons learned): Incorrect, as lessons learned are an output for improving future processes, not a trigger for implementing a new model.
Option B (Change request): Correct, as a change request is the formal mechanism to propose and implement a new or updated deployment model, per ITIL 4's integration with change enablement.
Option C (Updated knowledge management articles): Incorrect, as knowledge articles support documentation and training but do not trigger implementation.
Option D (Deployment review reports): Incorrect, as review reports provide insights or feedback, not the authorization needed to implement a model.

NEW QUESTION # 19
[Measure and Improve Deployment Management]
An organization is aiming to achieve capability level 3 for the deployment management practice. What is an indication of the achievement of capability level 3?

A. The deployment management team regularly suggests and implements improvement opportunities
B. Deployment models are developed and implemented
C. Employees from other practices understand how deployment activities are integrated into relevant workflows
D. The deployment manager is able to report on the effectiveness of the deployment management practice

Answer: C

Explanation:
ITIL 4 defines capability level 3 for a practice as achieving integration across the organization, where the practice is embedded into broader workflows and understood by related practices. For deployment management, an indication of reaching capability level 3 is when employees from other practices understand how deployment activities are integrated into relevant workflows (Option B). This demonstrates cross-functional alignment and maturity, showing that deployment management is not siloed but part of the organization's value streams.
Option A (The deployment management team regularly suggests and implements improvement opportunities): Incorrect, as continual improvement is characteristic of higher capability levels (e.g., level 4), not the defining feature of level 3.
Option B (Employees from other practices understand how deployment activities are integrated into relevant workflows): Correct, as level 3 focuses on integration and collaboration across practices, per ITIL 4's capability framework.
Option C (The deployment manager is able to report on the effectiveness of the deployment management practice): Incorrect, as reporting effectiveness is a general management task, not specific to level 3 maturity.
Option D (Deployment models are developed and implemented): Incorrect, as model development occurs at lower capability levels (e.g., level 1 or 2), not a hallmark of level 3.

NEW QUESTION # 20
[Understand the Key Concepts of Deployment Management]
Which is a key feature of continuous deployment which is not found in other CI/CD stages?

A. It predominantly uses staging environments
B. It allows individual decisions about software releases
C. It enables users to benefit immediately from changes
D. It automatically tests software code

Answer: C

Explanation:
Continuous deployment (CD) in ITIL 4 is the most advanced stage of the CI/CD pipeline, where every validated change is automatically deployed to production without manual intervention. The key feature unique to continuous deployment, not found in continuous integration or continuous delivery, is that it enables users to benefit immediately from changes (Option B), as changes reach production instantly after passing automated tests.
Option A (It automatically tests software code): Incorrect, as automated testing is a feature of continuous integration and continuous delivery, not unique to continuous deployment.
Option B (It enables users to benefit immediately from changes): Correct, as continuous deployment automatically pushes validated changes to production, delivering value to users without delay, unlike other CI/CD stages.
Option C (It predominantly uses staging environments): Incorrect, as continuous deployment minimizes reliance on staging environments, deploying directly to production.
Option D (It allows individual decisions about software releases): Incorrect, as continuous deployment eliminates manual release decisions, relying on automation for consistency.

NEW QUESTION # 21
[Use Tools and Techniques for Deployment]
Which automation tools should be used to transport and install configuration items into a test environment?

A. Deployment tools
B. Work planning and prioritization tools
C. Environment configuration and management tools
D. Service configuration management tools

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION # 22
......

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ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management Valid Test Notes | ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management Latest Exam Camp

High-quality ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management Valid Test Notes to Obtain Peoplecert Certification

Peoplecert ITIL 4 Practitioner: Deployment Management Sample Questions (Q17-Q22):

Peoplecert ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management Real Dumps Portable Version

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